Test Your Knowledge - Free MCQ PRACTICE
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A fresh set of 20 random questions is generated every time you open this page and every time you refresh it.
For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

1. The rate of secretion of thyrotropin is controlled by:
A. The concentration of catecholamines in blood 
B. The amount of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland 
C. The amount of iodine in the thyroid gland 
D. The concentration of thyroid hormones in blood 

2. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
A. High reabsorption in renal tubules 
B. Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier 
C. Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids 
D. Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis 

3. What type of study for an IND involves each subject receiving all treatment conditions?
A. Single-blind study 
B. Double-blind study 
C. Positive-control 
D. Crossover study 

4. Tick the unwanted effects of intravenous acyclovir infusion:
A. Renal insufficiency, tremors, delerium 
B. Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia 
C. Rash, diarrhea, nausea 
D. Neuropathy, abdominal pain 

5. This drug is associated with Torsades de pointes.
A. Flecainide 
B. Sotalol 
C. Lidocaine 
D. Verapamil 

6. Phenol coefficient of antiseptics is based upon a principle that a standard strain of a micro-organism should be killed by :
A. 1:5 dilution of phenol in 2 minutes 
B. 1:90 dilution of phenol in 10 minutes 
C. 1:9 dilution of phenol in 5 minutes 
D. 1:45 dilution of phenol in 7 minutes 

7. The strong antiemetic effect of the phenothiazine derivatives is due to dopamine receptor blockade:
A. In the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla 
B. Of the receptors in the stomach 
C. The medullar vomiting centre 
D. All of these 

8. Tick the antimalarial drug belonging to 8-aminoquinoline derivatives:
A. Doxycycline 
B. Quinidine 
C. Primaquine 
D. Chloroquine 

9. Side effect of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists is:
A. Aplastic anemia 
B. Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing 
C. Sedation 
D. Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding 

10. This drug is contraindicated in patients with moderate to severe heart failure:
A. Nifedipine 
B. Verapamil 
C. Both of the above 
D. None of these 

11. Sodium salt of sulphonamides are injected :
A. Intravenously 
B. Intramuscularly 
C. Subcutaneously 
D. All of these 

12. According to Clark's rule dose of a child is adult dose multiplied by weight of child in pounds divided by :
A. 50 
B. 75 
C. 100 
D. 150 

13. The reason of beta-blockers administration for hypertension treatment is:
A. Diminishing of blood volume 
B. Depression of vasomotor center 
C. Decreasing of heart work 
D. Peripheral vasodilatation 

14. Recommended phosphorus daily allowance is:
A. 900-1200 mg 
B. 600-900 g 
C. 25 g 
D. 1.5-4 mg 

15. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of prolonged release medications?
A. Less frequent administration 
B. Therapeutic effect overnight 
C. More fluctuation in plasma concentration 
D. Lower incidence of side effects 

16. Characteristics of dobutamine include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. It increases atrioventricular conduction 
B. It is used to treat bronchospasm 
C. It is a relatively beta1-selective synthetic catecholamine 
D. It causes minimal changes in heart rate and systolic pressure 

17. Indicate the mechanism of barbiturate action (at hypnotic doses):
A. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl- channel openings 
B. Directly activating the chloride channels 
C. Increasing the frequency of Cl- channel opening events 
D. All of these 

18. Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch)
A. Atropine 
B. Scopolamine 
C. Homatropine 
D. Tropicamide 

19. An undesired outcome of a medication is called
A. An adverse reaction to a medication. 
B. A side effect to a medication 
C. An emergency. 
D. Risk factor. 

20. Side effect of cyclosporine A is:
A. Diarrhea 
B. Headache 
C. GI disturbance 
D. Immunosuppression 

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