Mock Medical Entrance Test 2019-20 by Saksham Chaudhry : Turning Point Institute, Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 01147244724, 9810315579
A fresh set of 90 random questions is generated every time you open this page and every time you refresh it.
For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

1. Find out the correct group of enzyme which is activated bycalcium?
A. Nitric oxide Synthetase, protein phosphatase , adenylkinase 
B. Acetylco. ASynthetase, fructose isomerase protein phosphatase 
C. Succinic dehydrogenase, Cytochrome oxidase, Aldolase 
D. All above 

2. Which tissue is located in uterine tube and proximal tube of kidneys respectively :-
A. Columnar epithelium, Cuboidal epithelium  
B. Ciliated epithelium, columnar epithelium 
C. Ciliated epithelium, Cuboidal epithelium 
D. Cuboidal epithelium, ciliated epithelium 

3. Vegetative reproduction of Agave occurs through:
A. Rhizome  
B. Stolon  
C. Bulbils  
D. Sucker 

4. A place of collection of dried plant specimens is----
A. Arbarium  
B. Herbarium  
C. Botanical Garden  
D. All above 

5. Which is correctly associated?
A. RNA:thymine 
B. DNA:uracil 
C. RNA:replication 
D. RNA:ribosesugars 

6. Which tissue occurs with in the passages of the excretory organs :-
A. Ciliated Stratified epithelium  
B. Squamous Stratified epithelium 
C. Transitionalepithelium 
D. Cuboidal Stratified epithelium 

7. Which of the following will form a new species ?
A. inter breeding  
B. variations 
C. differential reproduction  
D. none of the above 

8. Adventitious roots:
A. Develop fromradical 
B. Develop fromflower 
C. Develop from embryo 
D. Develop from any part of plant body except radical 

9. Prokaryotes are included in the kingdom
A. Monera 
B. Protista  
C. Protozoa 
D. Basidiomycetes 

10. Fibers are found on the seeds of:
A. Calotropis  
B. Gossypium  
C. Alstonia  
D. All of above 

11. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?
A. Frequent irrigation of the crop 
B. Treatment of the plants with cytokinins alongwith a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer 
C. Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid 
D. Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll 

12. One of the following cannot be called a taxon
A. order  
B. family  
C. genus  
D. none of the above 

13. What might be the best strategy to prevent ecological damage due to acid rain?
A. Stock the lakes with bigger fish so that they can resist the effects of the acid better 
B. Reduce the amount of fossil fuels that are burnt 
C. Supply plants with excess phosphorus and water 
D. Supply fungi with excess sugars and aininoacids 

14. The zoological parks are working under supervision of -------

15. Which of the folowing pair regarding to biologicalimportance ofcarbohydrates is not correctlymatched?
A. Cellulose ?Forms the plant cellwall 
B. Glycogen ?Reserve food in animals 
C. Ribose sugar ?Structuralcomponents ofATP 
D. Galactose ?The most widelyused in respiration 

16. The prerequisities of Calvins cycle are
A. H2O, CO2 , ATP  
D. NADPH , H2O, CO2 

17. A person passes much urine and drinks much water but blood glucose level is normal . This condition may be the result of
A. A reduction in insulin secretin from pancreas 
B. A reduction in vasopression secretion from posterior pituitary 
C. A fall in the glucose concentration in urine 
D. An increase in secretion of glucagon 

18. The RNAtransporting amino acid to the protein synthesizing site known as
A. t-RNA  
B. r-RNA  
C. m-RNA  
D. Any one of these 

19. Plant of this group possess naked seed
A. Pteridophytes 
B. Angiosperms  
C. Gymnosperms 
D. Bryophytes 

20. Which one is maintained in botanical garden of Waghai in Gujarat ?
A. Fibrous plants 
B. Etable plants  
C. Economical plants 
D. medicinalplant 

21. Where Mangroves forest found ?
A. Dry region 
B. Coastal region  
C. Open area 
D. tropical region 

22. Indentify the correct sequence of karyokinesis stages :
A. Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase 
B. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase 
C. Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase, Anaphase 
D. Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase 

23. Which of the following structure are made of several layer's of cells :-
A. Ciliated epithelium  
B. Stratified epithelium 
C. Cuboidal epithelium 
D. Columnar epithelium 

24. Starch of guard cells is converted into PEP through
A. Hydrolysis  
B. Oxidation  
C. Dephosphorylation  
D. Decarboxylation 

25. The fixation and reduction of CO2 occur in preence of
A. ATP  
C. NADPH, chlorophyll and water  
D. ATP, NADPH and light 

26. Formation of nonfunctional methaemoglobin causes blue - baby syndrome. This is due to
A. excess of arsenic concentration in drinking water 
B. excess of nitrates in drinking water 
C. deficiency of iron in food 
D. increased methane content in the atmosphere 

27. Find odd one out :
A. Nanda devi 
B. Great Nicobar  
C. Mannar 
D. Thar 

28. Find out the one group of amino acids which are related with each other:
A. Valine, Histidine  
B. Serine, Tyrosine 
C. Glutamate, Proline 
D. Lysine, Laucine 

29. Unifoliate leaf is found in:
A. Pea  
B. Citrus  
C. Royal palm  
D. Oil palm 

30. The number of mitochondria per cell depends upon the..
A. Physiological activity of the cell  
B. Types of cell 
C. Shape of cell  
D. Size of cell 

31. Which of the following option is not correctly for this molecule?
A. It is Keto hexoses sugar.  
B. Hydrolysis of a molecule of maltose 
C. It can pass through the cell membarane  
D. Found in the juice of fruits 

32. Which one of the following bear the smallest seeds?
A. grasses 
B. legumes 
C. orchids 
D. Sedges 

33. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Fats ?Long saturated Fatty acidss chain 
B. Derivatives of Lipid ?Vitamins A, D, E 
C. Deoxyribose ?RNA 
D. Glycogen ?Forms the plant cellwall 

34. Zygomorphic condition can be represented as:
A. ?  
B. %  
C. P  
D. G 

35. Transpiration cohesion theoryexplains that the upwards pull of water is transmitted from top to bottom bycohesion of molecules caused by
A. Hydrophilic cell walls  
B. Hydrogen bonds 
C. Oxygen bonds  
D. Surface tension 

36. Transverse section of a plant is stainet withsafranin andfast green what is the color of the phloem?
A. Red 
B. Green 
C. Pink  
D. Orange 

37. Collenchyma Shows deposition of
A. Pectin 
B. Suberin 
C. Resin  
D. Lignin 

38. DNA is localized in which cell organelle?
A. Vacuoles  
B. Lysosomes 
C. Golgi apparatus 
D. Nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast 

39. Bile, which is important in the digestion of fats, is produced by the
A. liver 
B. duodenum 
C. stomach 
D. lacteals 

40. 2% NaCl as compared to 18% glucose solution is
A. Isotonic  
B. Hypotonic  
C. Hypertonic  
D. None of the above 

41. The Hepatitis-B, which affects liver, is actually a :
A. Virus 
B. Bacterium 
C. Protozoan 
D. Helminth 

42. Which animals of the following reptile is poisonous ?
A. Turtle 
B. Tree lizard 
C. Crocodile 
D. krait 

43. For chlorophyll formation most important minerals are
A. Fe++ and Ca++  
B. Fe++ and Mg++  
C. Mg++ and Ca++  
D. all the above 

44. Which one of the following is not a mammal?
A. Bat 
B. Duck-billed platypus 
C. Shark 
D. Whale 

45. Which of the following is most important for the growth of children up to the age of 14
A. protein 
B. vitamins 
C. fat 
D. milk 

46. In how many cells the meiotic division has taken place, if the total number of gametes produced are 32 ?
A. 4  
B. 16  
C. 8  
D. 32 

47. Narcotics are obtained from
A. Foeniculum vulgare 
B. Palaver somnijerous 
C. Digitalis pursuer 
D. Solarium tuberous 

48. Pasteurised milk is
A. Not free from bacteria 
B. Free from pathogenic bacteria 
C. Sterile and will not turn sour under any condition 
D. None of the above 

49. Chromosomes not related to sex-inheritance are called
A. allosomes 
B. autosomes 
C. centrosomes 
D. mesosomes 

50. Which ofthe following is a fightless bird ?
A. pigeon 
B. vulture 
C. parrot 
D. ostrich 

51. The formation of chiasmatis an important feature of meiotic division because it
A. Ensures that the same genetic characteristics appear in the daughter cell as in the parents 
B. Ensures that the number of genes in the new chromosomes remains constant 
C. Provides opportunities for new genotypes to arise 
D. Prevents homologous chromosomes from pairing 

52. The process bywhich water is absorbed bysolids like colloids causing themto increase in volume is
A. Facilitated diffusion  
B. Diffusion  
C. Osmosis  
D. Imbibation 

53. The ionized chl.a+
A. Receives low energy electron  
B. Receives high energy electron 
C. Expels low energy electron  
D. Expels highenergy electron 

54. When partial pressure of CO2 rises. the oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin at 37C will
A. remain unchanged 
B. become irregular 
C. shift towards left 
D. shift towards right 

55. Ribonucleoside formed from ribonucleotide while:-
A. It made from sugar  
B. It made from nitrogen base 
C. It made from phosphate 
D. All these 

56. Which is proper pair of ions and its deficiency symtoms ?
A. Nitrogen - Induction of dormancy  
B. Potassium - Scorched look to leaves 
C. Phosphorous - Chlorosis  
D. Zinc - Brown spoted of fruit11-12 

57. Which one is a correct pair ?
A. G2phase - Growth phase  
B. M phase - Interphase  
C. S phase - DNA synthesis 
D. G1phase - RNA and DNA synthesis 

58. In C4 plants showing Kranz anatomy whichof the following is correct ?
A. Bundle sheathcells without grana and mesophyll cells with grana 
B. bundle sheathcells with grana mesophyll cells without grana 
C. both are without grana 
D. both are with grana 

59. In which plant the seeds do not contain stored food ?
A. Atropa beladona 
B. Canbis sataiva 
C. Orchids  
D. Opium 

60. Cotton is a
A. stem fibre 
B. Hard fibre 
C. Surface fibre 
D. All the three 

61. What will happen to the rate of photosynthesis if sodium bicarbonate is added in the water having hydrilla plant in a beaker
A. It willremain normal  
B. It will be decreased 
C. It will be stopped  
D. It willbe accelerated 

62. The smallest gymnosperm is
A. Zamia sp 
B. Eucalyptus  
C. Wolfia sp 
D. Sequoia sp 

63. Temperature is veryhigh but a plant is showing photosynthesis with normalrate, probably it would be
A. C3plant  
B. Mango plant  
C. Pea plant  
D. Sugarcane plant 

64. The pseudocoelomate among these is
A. porifera 
B. Annelida 
C. Mollusca 
D. Aschelminthes 

65. The element of xylemin whichend walls are absent are called
A. Protoxylem 
B. Tracheids 
C. Metaxylem  
D. Trachaea 

66. The association of more than one ribosome with a single molecule of m-RNA complex is called as..
A. Polypeptide  
B. Polysome  
C. Polymer  
D. Poly Saccharide 

67. How many grana present in one chloroplast?
A. 40-60  
B. 42-47  
C. 60-80  
D. 02-100 

68. Our major foods, fibres, spices, fruits and beverage crops are
A. flowering plants 
B. gymnosperms plants 
C. pteridophytes 
D. bryophytes 

69. Which of the following microorganisms is used for production of citric acid in industries?
A. Aspergillus Nigeria 
B. Lactobadllus buglers 
C. Penicillin citrirum 
D. Rhizomes Nigerians 

70. Which is the true statement for the vanadiumelement ?
A. deficiencydo not regulate the size of stomata 
B. It is united in the formation of bipolar spindle during cell division 
C. plant do not get ammonia from the soil, due to its deficiency 
D. It plays role as structural component of vitamin Biotin and thiamin 

71. Pollen grains of some of the plants germinate on stigma soon but they burst in water or dilute sugar solution
A. Plasmolysis 
B. lmbibition 
C. Endosmosis 
D. Exosmosis 

72. The period between two successive divisions is called.....
A. Celldivision  
B. Cellcycle  
C. Interphase  
D. G1 phase 

73. Venous blood is carried to the lungs, for oxygenation by the
A. pulmonary arteries 
B. pulmonary veins 
C. pulmonary arteriovenous shunt 
D. right ventricle 

74. Which structure can be observed at the surface of centromere during metaphase ?
A. Kinetochores  
B. Chromatophore  
C. Kinetophore  
D. Chromatophore 

75. For synthesis of one glucose molecule, the number of ATP required are
A. 9 ATP for C3 cycle and 20 ATP for C4 cycle 
B. 18 ATP for C3 cycle and 30 ATP for C4 cycle 
C. 22 ATP for C3 cycle and 35 ATP for C4 cycle 
D. 24 ATP for C3 cycle and 36 ATP for C4 cycle 

76. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells ?
A. 84  
B. 21  
C. 42  
D. 63 

77. Pair of homologous chromosomes become arranged at the equatorial plane of the cell
A. Metaphase-II  
B. Metaphae-I  
C. Metaphase  
D. Zygotene 

78. Which is fundamentalproperty of all living organisms ?
A. Respiration  
B. Germination  
C. Growth 
D. Photosynthesis 

79. Which one of the following is a true fruit?
A. apple 
B. cashewnut 
C. Pineapple 
D. coconut 

80. Root that grow from any part of the plant body other than the radical are called?
A. Tap root  
B. Adventitious root 
C. Modified roots  
D. Aerial roots 

81. Cymose inflorescence is present in:
A. Sesbania  
B. Trifolium  
C. Brassica  
D. Solanum 

82. It connects the bones joints and holds themin position :-
A. Tendon  
B. While elastic cartilage 
C. Ligament 

83. Milk teeth in a child of 3-4 years do not include
A. incisors 
B. canines 
C. molars 
D. premolars 

84. Give name of organelle,which is surrounded by a single layered wall
A. Lysosome  
B. Mitochondria  
C. Chloroplast  
D. Nucleus 

85. which of the following compounds found in all living organisms are rich in phosphorus?
A. carbohydrates 
B. fats 
C. nucleic acids 
D. proteins 

86. How many plant species are there in India ?
A. 40,000 
B. 80,000 
C. 58,000 
D. 45,500 

87. Which one of the following plant organs is an organ of respiration?
A. flower 
B. leaf 
C. root 
D. none of these 

88. Oncogene is responsible for :
B. typhoid 
C. malaria 
D. cancer 

89. Some states in India have imposed a ban on the consumption of kesari dal (Lathyrus sativus) because it causes gradual loss of
A. vision 
B. movement of lowerlimbs 
C. hearing 
D. red blood cells 

90. A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is kept under
A. species  
B. genus  
C. order  
D. taxon 

91. The process that does not involve evolution of CO2 is
A. combustion 
B. respiration 
C. fermentation 
D. photosynthesis 

92. The organic compound is
A. a primary alcohol 
B. an aldehyde 
C. a ketone 
D. a secondary alcohol 

93. Which one of the following does NOT involve coagulation?
A. Formation of delta regions 
B. Peptization 
C. Treatment of drinking water by potash alum 
D. Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride 

94. In the industrial production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is
A. dissociation 
B. reduction 
C. oxidation 
D. ionisation 

95. Argon is used
A. in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer 
B. in high temperature welding 
C. in filling airships 
D. to obtain low temperature 

96. The number of disulphide linkages present in insulin are
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 4 
D. 3 

97. Soap is prepared by heating caustic soda with
A. kerosene oil 
B. linseed oil 
C. petroleum 
D. almond oil 

98. The industrial preparation of the metal aluminium from bauxite involves the process of
A. fractional crystallisation 
B. fractional distillation 
C. electrolysis 
D. reduction 

99. 75, which would combine with 8 g of oxygen is
A. 31.75 
B. 1 
C. 3.175 
D. 8 

100. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour? At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27
A. [Mn(H2O)6]2+ 
B. [Co(H2O)6]2+ 
C. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 
D. [Cr(H2O)6]2+ 

101. The high reactivity of fluorine is due to
A. its high electro negativity 
B. small size of fluorine atom 
C. availability of d-orbitals 
D. strong F-F bond 

102. 5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A hole was made in the container. After 3 hours, the order of partial pressures in the container will be
A. pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2 
B. pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4 
C. pSO2 > pCH4, > pH2 
D. pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4 

103. What is the nature of glucose-glucose linkage in starch that makes its so susceptible to acid hydrolysis?
A. Starch is hemiacetal 
B. Starch is acetal 
C. Starch is polymer 
D. Starch contains only few molecules of glucose 

104. The number of nodal planes present in s * s antibonding orbitals is
A. 2 
B. 3 
C. 0 
D. 1 

105. Chemically, baking soda is
A. calcium phosphate 
B. sodium bicarbonate 
C. sodium chloridc 
D. baker's yeast 

106. IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCl
A. n-butyl chloride 
B. t-butyl chloride 
C. 3-chloro butane 
D. 2 chloro 2 methyl propane 

107. 5 gm of NaCl of 90% purity was subjected to electrolysis. After the complete electrolysis, the solution was evaporated to get solid NaOH. The volume of 1 M acetic acid required to neutralise NaOH obtained above is
A. 1000 cm3 
B. 200 cm3 
C. 100 cm3 
D. 2000 cm3 

108. The substance most commonly used as a food preservative is
A. sodium bicarbonate 
B. tartaric acid 
C. acetic acid 
D. benzoic acid 

109. 80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in
A. 5 g of hydrogen  
B. 80 g of hydrogen 
C. 1 g of hydrogen 
D. 10 g of hydrogen 

110. Malleability and ductility of` metals can be accounted due to
A. the crystalline structure in metal 
B. the capacity of` layers of metal ions to slide over the other 
C. the interaction of` electrons with metal ions in the lattice 
D. the presence of electrostatic force 

111. The number of naturally occurring p-block elements that are diamagnetic is
A. 7 
B. 18 
C. 6 
D. 5 

112. 2 g of organic compound on Kjeldahilization liberates ammonia which consumes 30 cm3 of 1 N HCl. The percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is
A. 30 
B. 46.67 
C. 35 
D. 20.8 

113. An example for autocatalysis is
A. oxidation of NO to NO2 
B. oxidation of oxalic acid by acidified KMnO4 
C. decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2 
D. oxidation of SO2 to SO3 

114. Pure alcohol can be easily obtained from wine by process of
A. crystallisation 
B. distillation 
C. cracking 
D. oxidation 

115. 303 RT J mol-1. The ratio of the rate constant to Arrhenius factor is
A. 210-2 
B. 10-1 
C. 210-3 
D. 10-2 

116. How many chiral carbon atoms are present in 2, 3, 4 - trichloropentane?
A. 3 
B. 1 
C. 2 
D. 4 

117. The pH value of 12 is of an aqueous solution of
A. sodium hydroxide 
B. ammonium sulphate 
C. sodium chloride 
D. hydrogen chloride 

118. A gas which is not present in normal samples of air is
A. neon 
B. chlorine 
C. carbon dioxide 
D. helium 

119. The iron ore magnetite consists of
A. Fe2O3 
B. Fe3OH4 
C. FeCO3 
D. 3Fe2O3 .. 3H2O 

120. The mineral containing both magnesium and calcium is
A. magnesite 
B. calcite 
C. carnallite 
D. dolomite 

121. The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many geometrical isomers?
A. 3 
B. 4 
C. 0 
D. 2 

122. The process of changing of one element into another is called
A. radioactive decay 
B. transinutation of the elements 
C. covalent bond formation 
D. hybridization 

123. During fermentation of sugar, the chief compound always formed is
A. methyl alcohol 
B. ethyl alcohol 
C. acetic acid 
D. ethylene 

124. The variety of coal in which the deposit contains recognisable traces of the original plant material is :
A. anthracite 
B. lignite 
C. peat 
D. bitumen 

125. Which of these will have the least volume?
A. HCl 
B. HBr 
C. HF 
D. HI 

126. Artificially, gasoline is prepared by an industrial process known as
A. Sabatier and Sendren's process 
B. Friedel-Crafts reaction 
C. Fischer-Tropsch process 
D. l-laber's' process 

127. An alkyl halide reacts with alcoholic ammonia in a sealed tube, the product formed will be
A. a tertiary amine 
B. a primary amine 
C. a secondary amine- 
D. All of these 

128. Which of the following compound would not evolve CO2 when treated with NaHCO3 solution?
A. benzoic acid 
B. salicylic acid 
C. phenol 
D. 4-nitro benzoic acid 

129. The letter 'D' in D - glucose signifies
A. that it is a monosaccharide 
B. configuration at all chiral carbons 
C. configuration at a particular chiral carbon 
D. dextrorotatory 

130. Which one of the following shows functional isomerism?
A. C2H5OH 
B. CH2Cl2 
C. C2H4 
D. C3H6 

131. The pure crystalline form of silica used in scientific apparatus for passing ultraviolet light is called
A. soda glass 
B. pyrex glass 
C. corning glass 
D. quartz glass 

132. The percentage of silver in the zinc layer is approximately
A. 89 
B. 94 
C. 97 
D. 91 

133. The manufacture of iron from iron ore involves the process of
A. chlorination 
B. reduction 
C. fractional distillation 
D. electrolysis 

134. A saturated solution at a particular temperature
A. is colourless 
B. is highly coloured 
C. does not dissolve any more of the solid solute 
D. contains suspended solid particles 

135. The element silicon is abundantly present in
A. coal 
B. sand 
C. limestone 
D. salt 

136. How far will a body free-fall in 1 second if released from rest ?
A. 0.0m 
B. 4.9m 
C. 9.8 m 
D. 19.6 m 

137. Shadows consist of two portions, the umbra and the penumbra. Which statement below applies ONLY to the umbra?
A. lt receives no light from any part of the source 
B. lt receives light from part of the source 
C. lt is a partial shadow 
D. It is circular in shape 

138. An electron is travelling along the x-directlon . It encounters a magnetic field in the y-direction . Its subsequent motion will be
A. Straight line along the x-direction 
B. A circle in the xz-plane 
C. A circle in the yz-plane 
D. A circle in the xy-plane 

139. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted beta-particles are
A. The electrons present inside the nucleus 
B. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus 
C. the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms 
D. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus 

140. For a wave propagating in a medium, identify the property that is independent of the others
A. Velocity 
B. Wavelength 
C. Frequency 
D. None. All these are interdependant 

141. Which of the following relations between weber, second, ampere and volt is correct ?
A. weber/second = volt 
B. weber x second = volt 
C. weber/second = ampere 
D. weber x second = ampere 

142. Which statement below is true ?
A. Radiant energ; is propagated as a wave motion 
B. Positions have the same mass as an electron 
C. When a nucleus emits a beta particle, its mass number is unchanged 
D. All of ihe above 

143. Moving with the same velocity, which of the following has the longest de Broglie wavelength ?
A. neutron 
B. proton 
C. beta - particle 
D. alpha - particle 

144. The volume of a confined gas varies inversely with the absolute pressure provided that the temperature remains unchanged. This statement is known as
A. Dalton's law 
B. Bemoulli's law 
C. Avagadro`s law 
D. Boyle's law 

145. If the distance between two similar magnetic poles held one cm apart be doubled, then the force of interaction between them will be
A. Halved 
B. Doubled 
C. Unchanged 
D. One quarter ot the original value 

146. A soap film is formed on a wire ring held vertically and allowed to drain. A diffuse source oi while light is observed by reflection in the soap film. In this connection indicate the wrong staternent
A. The colours are due to refraction of light by the wedge~shaped film 
B. The thickness of the film is of the same order as the wavelength of visible light 
C. The band of colours move downwards as the film drains 
D. Just before the film breaks. it may appear black at the top 

147. Two identical plates of different metals are joined to iorm a single plate whose thickness is double the thickness of each plate. If the coefficients of conductivity oi each plats are 2 and 3 respectively, then the conductivity composite plate will be
A. 5 
B. 1.2 
C. 2.4 
D. 1.5 

148. For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies
A. The total kinetic energy is conserved 
B. The total potential energy is conserved 
C. The linear momentum is not conserved 
D. The linear momentum is conserved 

149. In simplest terms, the energy of a wave is directly proportional to the square of its
A. height 
B. refraction 
C. reflection 
D. length 

150. Characteristic X-rays are produced due to
A. Transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with target atoms 
B. Transition of electrons from higher to lower electronic orbits in an atom 
C. Heating of the target 
D. Transfer of energy in collision Ef electrons with atoms in the target 

151. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an electron . When it is accelerated by potential difference of 1 kV, its kinetic energy will be
A. 1840 ke V 
B. 1./1840 ke V 
C. 1 ke V 
D. 920 ke V 

152. Suppose the sun expands so that its radius becomes 100 times its present radius and its surface temperature becomes half of its present value. The total energy emitted by it then will increase by s factor of
A. 10,000 
B. 625 
C. 256 
D. 16 

153. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.01% when subjected to a normal uniform pressure of 100 atmospheres. The built modulus of its material in dyne/cm square is
A. 2.0E11 
B. 1E12 
C. 100E12 
D. 10E12 

154. The width of the spectrum obtained by prism does not depend upon
A. Angel of the prism 
B. incident angle 
C. Angular dispersion 
D. Material of the prism 

155. If Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays carry same momentum. which has the longest wavelength ?
A. Alpha rays 
B. Beta rays 
C. Gamma rays 
D. None, all have same wavelength 

156. The electric current passing thorough a metallic wire produces heat because of
A. Collisions of the conduction electrons with the atoms of the metallic wire 
B. The energy released in the ionization of the atoms of the metal 
C. Collisions of conduction electrons with each other 
D. Collisions of the atoms of the metal with each other 

157. A concrete sphere of radius R has a cavity of radius r which is packed with sawdust. The relative densities of concrete and sawdust are 2.4 and 0.3 respectively. For this sphere to float with its entire volume submerged under water, the ratio of the mass of concrete to the mass of sawdust will be
A. zero 
B. 3 
C. 4 
D. 8 

158. A radio or T.V. set which uses valves does not start operating immediately when it switched on, whereas the set only containing transistors operates immediately. The reason for this is that
A. Current does not have so far to go in a transistor set 
B. Filament of the value takes time to heat up 
C. Valve set works at a higher voltage 
D. Transistor set has a lower resistance 

159. The decrease in the potential energy of a ball of mass 20 kg which falls from a height of 50 cm is
A. 98 J 
B. 968 J 
C. 1980 J 
D. None of these 

160. Two projectiles are fired from the same point with the same speed at angles of projection 60 and 30 respectively. Which one of the following is true?
A. Their maximum height will be same 
B. Their range will be same 
C. Their landing velocity will be same 
D. Their time of flight will be same 

161. In an orbital motion. the angular momentum vector is
A. Along the radius vector 
B. Parallel to the linear momentum 
C. ln the orbital plane 
D. Perpendicular to the orbital plane 

162. Indicate the only correct statement in the following
A. The maximum amount of heat that can be converted into mechanical energy is 100% 
B. The maximum amount of mechanical energy that can be converted into heat is 100% 
C. By opening the door of a working refrigerator in a room. you can cool the surrounding air 
D. in an adiabatic expansion of a gas, the product of pressure and volume increases 

163. Bermoulli's equation is a consequence of conservation of
A. Energy 
B. Linear momentum 
C. Angular momentum 
D. Mass 

164. Nuclear fusion is possible
A. Only between light nudei 
B. Only between heavy nuclei 
C. Between both light and heavy nuclei 
D. Only between nuclei which are stable against beta-decay 

165. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m with a velocity of 36 km/h. The centripetal force is ?
A. 250N 
B. 750N 
C. 1000N 
D. 1250N 

166. Newton-second is the unit of
A. energy 
B. momentum 
C. angular momentum 
D. velocity 

167. In refraction, light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium, because. in the second medium
A. The frequency is different 
B. The coefficient of elasticity is different 
C. The speed is different 
D. The amplitude is smaller 

168. If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity V at an angle of 30 to the horizontal and another body B of the same mass is thrown with the same speed at an angle of 60 to the horizontal, the ratio of horizontal range of A to B will be?
A. 1:3 
B. 1:1 
C. 3:2 
D. 2:3 

169. The plsaee difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is
A. 0.5 pie 
B. 1 pie 
C. 0.707 pie 
D. zero 

170. What is the potential energy of a 10 kg steel ball which has been raised vertically 9 m above the floor ?
A. 441 joules 
B. 98 joules 
C. 90 joules 
D. 882 joules 

171. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off and the same magnetic field is maintained. the electrons move
A. in an elliptical orbit 
B. in a circular orbit 
C. along a parabolic path 
D. along a straight line 

172. The wavelength of light of a particular wavelength received from a galaxy is measured one earth and is found to be 5% more that its wavelength. It follows that the galaxy is
A. going away from the earth with a speed 1.5E7/ms 
B. approaching the earth with a speed 1.5E7/ms 
C. going away from the earth with a speed 3E7/ms 
D. approaching the earth with a speed 3E7/ms 

173. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the conservation of
A. Mass 
B. Linear momentum 
C. Angular momentum 
D. Energy 

174. The maximum range of a gun of horizontal terrain is 16 km. If g= 10 ms then muzzle velocity of a shell must be ?
A. 160 m/s 
B. 200?2 m/s 
C. 400 m/s 
D. 800 m/s 

175. The proposal that no more than two electrons may occupy a particular atomic orbital was made by
A. Pauli 
B. Raman 
C. Einstein 
D. Curie 

176. A double slit experiment is performed with light of wavelength 500 nm. A thin film of thickness 2 ?m and refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the path of the upper beam. The location of the central maximum will
A. Remain unshifted 
B. Shift downward by nearly two fringes 
C. Shift upward by nearly two fringes 
D. Shift downward by 10 fringes 

177. Parsec is the unit of
A. time 
B. frequency 
C. distance 
D. angular acceleration 

178. In a material medium, when a positron meets an electron both the particles annihilate leading to the emission of two gamma ray photons . This process forms the basis of an important diagnostic procedure called

179. A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a string of length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal circle. The string will break if the tension is more than 25 N. What is the maximum speed with which the ball can be moved?
A. 14m/s 
B. 8 m/s 
C. 5 m/s 
D. 3m/s 

180. lf momentum is increased by 20%, then kinetic energy increases by
A. 55% 
B. 77% 
C. 66% 
D. 44%