Mock Medical Entrance Test 2019-20 by Saksham Chaudhry : Turning Point Institute, Paschim Vihar, New Delhi 110063 T: 01147244724, 9810315579
A fresh set of 90 random questions is generated every time you open this page and every time you refresh it.
For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the most appropriate answer :

1. Which hormone influence the activity of kidney?
A. Vasopression  
B. Thyoxine  
C. Vasopression & aldosterone 
D. Gonadotrophin 

2. F0 base of oxysome is towards :
A. Outer chamber  
B. Matrix  
C. Inner chamber 
D. Both B and C 

3. An excretory systemis absent in
A. Sepia 
B. Crab 
C. Starfish 
D. Earthworm 

4. A Codon is made up of
A. Single nucleotide  
B. two nucleotides 
C. three nucleotides  
D. Four nucleotides 

5. Thrombokinase is produced in
A. RBC  
B. WBC  
C. Blood vessels  
D. blood platelets 

6. Phosphorylation means
A. Formation of reduced coenzymes  
B. Formation of PGA 
C. Formation ofATP 
D. Breakdown of ATP 

7. In whichof the following matters mitosis and meiosis are similar ?
A. Both are precede by DNA replication 
B. Both have pairing of homologous chromosomes 
C. Both process occurs in all kinds of cells 
D. Both include separation of paired chromosomes 

8. Which one of the followlng is a correct statement
A. The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds 
B. ‘Flaw Savor" variety of tomato has enhanced the production of ethylene which improves its taste 
C. "Bt" in "Bt-cotton" indicates that it is a genetically modified organism produced through biotechnology 
D. Somatic hybridisation involves fusion of two complete plant cells carrying desired genes 

9. Which of the following reaction is observed in droping of drocera due to insects ?
A. Thigmonasty  
B. Chemotropism  
C. Photonasty  
D. Thigmotropism 

10. Which statement is improper for intraspecific hybridization
A. Animals of two different species are interbreed 
B. The offspring show characters quite different form those obsreved in both parents 
C. In some cases fertility of offsprings gradually discreases 
D. Some times, the offsprings may posess all the desirable characters 

11. Glucose is reabsorbed from glomerular filterate though
A. Active transport  
B. Passive transport  
C. Osmosis  
D. Difusion 

12. Study of lichens is called
A. Algology 
B. Mycology  
C. Lichenology 
D. Cytology 

13. Osmosis defined as
A. Flow of solvent (water) through a semipermiable membrane fromless concentrated solution to more concentrated solution 
B. Flow of solute from a semipermeable membrane 
C. Flow of water without a membrane 
D. None ot the above 

14. If liver frombody is removed then which component of blood increases
A. Ammonia  
B. Protein  
C. urea  
D. Uric acid 

15. How manylayers are there in the structure of thylakoid? (AMV-2003)
A. 2  
B. 3  
C. 4  
D. 5 

16. Hepatic portal system starts from
A. Digestive system to liver  
B. Kidney to liver 
C. Liver to heart  
D. Liver to Kidney 

17. Which of the following is not a parasite?
A. louse 
B. mosquito 
C. tick 
D. housefly 

18. Which is the specific use of synthetic auxin in higher concentration ?
A. Weedicide 
B. Inhibits growth of lateral buds 
C. Inhibits initial process of root formation 
D. Regulatescellelongation 

19. It is a power house of cell
A. Mitochondria  
B. Chloroplast 
C. Nucleus  
D. Golgi-apparatus 

20. Which one is produce by the help of Arebia gossipae ?
A. Riboflavin  
B. Steriods  
C. Statins  
D. Lycin 

21. Into how many sub-phylum chordata is divided ?
A. two 
B. four 
C. six 
D. three 

22. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of
A. chloroplasts 
B. cell wall 
C. cell membrane 
D. nucleus 

23. Muscular contraction of alimentary canal are
A. Circulation  
B. Deglutition  
C. Churning  
D. Peristalsis 

24. The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac
A. Through one of the synergids 
B. By directly penetrating the egg 
C. Between one synergid and central cell 
D. By knocking off the antipodal cells 

25. The opposite end of the micropylar region of an ovule is called
A. Embryo sac  
B. Nucellus  
C. Chalaza  
D. Thalamus 

26. Single cell protein is produced by
A. Anaerobic respiration (fermentation) 
B. Aerobic respiration 
C. Biofortication 
D. Paturization 

27. RQ is less than one, if the respiratory substrate is
A. Organic acids  
B. Fats and proteins  
C. Sucrose 
D. Glucose 

28. C4 plants can perform photosynthesis
A. Eveninlow light intensity 
B. Even in low CO2 concentration 
C. Both A and B 
D. Onlyinhigh intensity of light and high CO2 

29. CO2 release occurs in
A. Photosynthesis  
B. Respiration  
C. Transpiration 
D. Guttation 

30. Find out the miss matched pair
A. Melanin-imparts color to the body 
B. Hemoglobin - transport of oxygen 
C. Chlorophyll - must for photosynthesis 
D. Immunoglobulin- responsible for movements of body 

31. The sequence ofcell cycle is :
A. S, M, G1and G2 
B. G1 , S, G2and M 
C. G1, G2, S and M  
D. M, G1 , G2and S 

32. What is the rate of respiration during seed germination ?
A. Slow  
B. Steady  
C. Rapid  
D. Zero 

33. The cell wall of algae is made up of which substance?
A. Protein  
B. Mannans  
C. Lipid  
D. a,b,c-all 

34. Which one of the following is a microelement?
A. chlorine 
B. hydrogen 
C. nitrogen 
D. oxygen 

35. What is called a capsule of collagenous connective tissue immediatelyafter the germinalepithelium of ovaries?
A. Stroma  
B. Tunica albuginea  
C. Ovarian epithelium  
D. None of them 

36. Which of these is correct order of hierarchy ?
A. kingdom, division, phylum genus & species 
B. phylum, division, genus & class 
C. kingdom, genus, class, phylum & division 
D. phylum, kingdom, genus, species &class 

37. Angitensigngen I is secreted by
A. Pencreas  
B. JG cells  
C. Liver  
D. Kidney 

38. Ability of a plant or animal cell to repeatedly divide and differentiate into a complete organism is :-
A. cloning  
B. DNA finger printing 
C. cellular totipotency  
D. mitosis 

39. Which hormone is synthesized byroot and endosperm?
A. Auxin  
B. Cytokinin  
C. Gibberrelin  
D. Ethylene 

40. How manysecondary spermatocyte will be required to form 400 spermatozoans
A. 100  
B. 200  
C. 40  
D. 400 

41. Photorespiration and photosynthesis both require
A. Organic fuel  
B. chlorophyll  
C. cytochromes  
D. energy 

42. Albinos have genotype of aa while all other members of population are either AA or Aa. The offspring of cross between heterozygous male and albino female would be
A. 100% albino 
B. 100% normal 
C. 50% normal, 50% albino 
D. 25% normal, 75% albino 

43. Staments withfree anthers but filaments fused into a number of groups are;
A. Polyadelphous  
B. Diadelphous  
C. Monadelphous 
D. Syngenesious 

44. Fertilized secondary necleus develops into
A. Fruit  
B. Embryo  
C. seed 
D. Endosperm 

45. Maltose
A. Glucose, Fructose  
B. Glucose, Galectose 
C. Glucose, Sucrose  
D. Glucose, Glucose 

46. Which test is carried out if disease is occured bysalmonella typhi ?
A. Widal test  
B. Lisman test  
C. Blood test  
D. Barium test 

47. Which factors are required for growth ?
A. An increase in group of cells, a duplication of genetic material 
B. Anincrease in group ofcells, production of daughter cells by mitosis 
C. Adupliction of genetic materialand a division assuring that daughter cells receive an equal complement of genetic material 
D. Anincrease in cellmass, a duplication of genetic material, a division assuring that each daughter cell receives an equal complement of the genetic material 

48. Synthesis of nucleic acids always takes place in
A. 31 - 51 dicectioon  
B. 51 - 31 direction 
C. Both ways  
D. in any direction 

49. All of the following are true about the endocrine system except
A. It relies on chemical messenger that travels through the blood stream 
B. It is a control system which has extremely rapid effects on the body 
C. The hormones affect only certain target organs 
D. It is involved in maintaining body homeostasis 

50. How gibberrelin accelerates seed germination ?
A. Byeffecting rate of cell division  
B. By the synthesis of digestive juice 
C. Abscisic acid  
D. Absorption of water from hard seed coat 

51. At which stage, the homologous chromosomes separate due to repulsion, but are yet held by chiasmata :
A. Zygotene  
B. Pachytene  
C. Diplotene  
D. Diakinesis 

52. Which layer surrounds the cavity of digestive track ?
A. Serosa  
B. Muscular layer  
C. Submucosa  
D. Mucosa 

53. The volume of blood present in an adult human is
A. 1 liter  
B. 5 liters  
C. 2 liters  
D. 10 liters 

54. An inflorescence always forms a : (Punjab PMT 1997 )
A. Multiple or composite fruit  
B. Simple fruit 
C. Drydehiscent fruit  
D. Aggregate fruit 

55. Botanical garden provide---
A. Provide naturalhabitat for wild life 
B. In-situ conservation 
C. Ex-situ conservation 
D. All above 

56. For keeping stomata open, besides K+ ions the guard cells require a constant supply of
A. ABA  
B. ATP  
C. Organic acid  
D. Protons 

57. Binomial nomenclature was given by
A. Huxley  
B. Ray  
C. Darwin  
D. Linnaeus 

58. If after ovulation no pregnancyresult the corpus luteum
A. Is maintained by the presence of progesterone 
B. Degenerates ina short time 
C. Becomes active and secretes lot of FSH and LH 
D. Produces lot of oxytocin and relaxin 

59. The largest corpuscle in the blood is
A. Basophils 
B. Acidophils 
C. Monocytes 
D. Lymphocyte 

60. When canbiumis present, the vascular bundle is called-
A. Close  
B. Radial 
C. Open  
D. Conjoint 

61. Which structure possess flagellin protein?
A. Muscles fiber  
B. Flagellum  
C. Pilli  
D. a,b,c-all 

62. Who proposed the cell theory
A. Singer and Nicholsen  
B. Schwann and schleiden 
C. Hook and Brown  
D. Robertson 

63. Wheat grain is an example of :
A. Achene  
B. Caryopsis  
C. Nut  
D. Follicle 

64. The stage of mitosis during which the nucleolus disintegrates and chromosomes appear is known as
A. Interphase  
B. Metaphase  
C. Prophase  
D. Anaphase 

65. Which one is odd ?
A. Malaria  
B. Pneumonia  
C. AIDS  
D. Typhoid 

66. How many mitotic division are needed for a single cell to make 128 cells ?
A. 54  
B. 25  
C. 34  
D. 7 

67. Litmus yielding lichen is known as
A. Roccella tintoria 
B. Lecanora esculento 
C. Cladonia rangijerina 
D. Cetraria islandiou 

68. DNA acts as a template for synthesis of
A. RNA  
B. DNA  
C. Both A and B  
D. Protein 

69. Which one is wisdom teeth
A. Third molar, four in number  
B. Third molar, two in number 
C. Second molar, four in number  
D. Second molar, two in number 

70. which of the following compounds found in all living organisms are rich in phosphorus?
A. carbohydrates 
B. fats 
C. nucleic acids 
D. proteins 

71. Which is incorrect ?
A. Presence of nonrespiratory air sacs increases efficinency of respiration in birds 
B. In insects,circulation body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues 
C. Principle of counter - current flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes 
D. Residualair in lungs slightlydecreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals 

72. Which fruit is a type of nut?
A. Ground nut  
B. Oat  
C. Walnut  
D. Cashew nut 

73. Which one of the following is also called halophiles ?
A. Eubacteria 
B. Actinomyces  
C. Cyanobacteria 
D. Archaebacteria 

74. Air sacs is connected to in birds
A. wings 
B. Bone 
C. lungs 
D. limbs 

75. In some plants, water oozes through certain pores that remain permanently open. This phenomenon is called
A. evaporation 
B. guttation 
C. transpiration 
D. vaporization 

76. Which hormore is essential for initial growth of root ?
A. IBA  
B. GA  
C. ABA  
D. Kinetin 

77. Following fertilisation, implantation usually occurs
A. almost immediately 
B. between 12 and 24 hours 
C. within 1-3 days 
D. after 4 days 

78. The crystal of lead zirconate is a key component of
A. Electroencephalography 
B. Electrocardiography 
C. Magnetoencephalography 
D. Sonography 

79. Which is the lung disorder related to profession?
A. Silicosis  
B. Emphysema  
C. Pneumonia  
D. Asthma 

80. The separation of two chomatids of each chromosome during earlyanaphase is initiated by :
A. The interaction of centromere with the chromosomal fibres 
B. The elongation of metaphytic spindle 
C. Attachment of spindle fibres with Kinetochore 
D. All the above 

81. Bacteria possess small DNA other than circular DNA which is called as.
A. Cosmid  
B. Plasmid  
C. Plastid  
D. Starid 

82. Which of the following ratio is constant in the DNA of all the species?
A. A+U / T+C  
B. A+G/ C+T  
C. A+C / T+G 
D. A+T / C+G 

83. How does Amoeba reproduce ?
A. Binary fission  
B. Budding  
C. Sporulation  
D. Both A and C 

84. Casparian strips are the characteristics of
A. Cortex  
B. Endodermis 
C. Pericycle  
D. Pith 

85. Loop of henle and collecting ducts are locketed in kidney is..
A. Cortex  
B. Medulla pyramid  
C. Columns of bertini  
D. Calyces 

86. Photosynthesis is most active in
A. sunlight  
B. yellow  
C. red  
D. green 

87. Which option is correct for ion chhanel ?
A. Theyare consist of lipid.  
B. They always remain open 
C. They are Permeable to more than one ion  
D. Theyare consist of protein 

88. Which of the following is found in high concentration inhealthy leaf ?
A. Cytokinin  
B. Gibberrelin  
C. Auxin 
D. Ethylene 

89. Carbonic anhydrase is activated in the presence of which elements?
A. Mb  
B. Mn  
C. Ca 
D. Zn 

90. Extra chromosomal smallcirular double stranded DNA molecule in a bacterial cell is stranded DNA molecule in bacterial cell is
A. Plastid  
B. Plasmid  
C. Mitochondrion  
D. Chloroplast 


91. The mass number of a nucleus is
A. always less than its atomic number 
B. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus 
C. always more than the atomic weight 
D. a fraction 

92. This is due to
A. +R effect of -NH2 group 
B. hyperconjugation effect 
C. -R effect of -NH2 group 
D. -I effect of -NH2 group 

93. The acid that 'can be used as a hypnotic is
A. tartaric acid 
B. benzoic acid 
C. barbituric acid 
D. butanoic acid 

94. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?
A. Ga and In 
B. Ni and Fe 
C. Ag and Au 
D. Zr and Ti 

95. The electronic transitions from n = 2 to n = 1 will produce shortest wavelength in (where n = principal quantum state)
A. H+ 
B. Li+2 
C. He+ 
D. H 

96. 1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic aci To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolve The pH of the resulting buffer is equal to
A. pKa - Log2 
B. pKa + L0g2  
C. pKa 
D. pKa + 2 

97. In the periodic table metals usually used as catalysts belong to
A. d - block 
B. f - block 
C. p - block 
D. s - block 

98. The original compound is
A. tertiary alcohol 
B. primary alcohol 
C. carboxylic acid 
D. secondary alcohol 

99. The oxidation state of iron in K4 [Fe (CN )6] is
A. 3 
B. 2 
C. 4 
D. 1 

100. Which of the following is not nucleofile?
A. Hydrogen peroxide 
B. Boron trifluoride  
C. Benzoyl chloride 
D. Hydrogen sulfide 

101. ln electrophillic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A. increases electron density at ortho and para positions 
B. decreases electron density at ortho and para positions 
C. decreases electron density at meta position 
D. increases electron density at meta position 

102. Reaction of formaldehyde and ammonia gives
A. Bakelite 
B. Urea 
C. Triethylene Tetramine 
D. Hexamethylene tetramine 

103. The pH value of 12 is of an aqueous solution of
A. sodium hydroxide 
B. ammonium sulphate 
C. sodium chloride 
D. hydrogen chloride 

104. The ratio of different gases in air is
A. unknown 
B. fixed 
C. different from place to place 
D. independent of industrialisation of towns 

105. Cinnabar is an ore of
A. copper 
B. iron 
C. mercury 
D. lead 

106. The compound obtained by heating a caustic soda solution with linseed oil can be used as a
A. fuel 
B. fertiliser 
C. soap 
D. plastic 

107. Water is not effective in extinguishing a fire caused by petrol because
A. the flame is too hot for water to cool it down 
B. water and petrol react chemically 
C. water and petrol are miscible with each other 
D. water and petrol are immiscible with each other and petrol forms the upper layer and continues to burn 

108. The method that cannot be used for removing permanent hardness of water is
A. adding sodium carbonate 
B. distillation 
C. adding caustic soda 
D. boiling 

109. The metallic constituents of hard water are :
A. magnesium, calcium and tin 
B. iron, tin and calcium 
C. calcium, magnesium and iron 
D. magnesium, tin and iron 

110. The letter 'D' in D - glucose signifies
A. that it is a monosaccharide 
B. configuration at all chiral carbons 
C. configuration at a particular chiral carbon 
D. dextrorotatory 

111. Hybridization of C2 and C3 of H3C – CH = C = CH – CH3 are
A. Sp2, Sp 
B. Sp, Sp 
C. Sp2, Sp2 
D. Sp, Sp3 

112. Which of these will have the least volume?
A. HCl 
B. HBr 
C. HF 
D. HI 

113. The pure crystalline form of silica used in scientific apparatus for passing ultraviolet light is called
A. soda glass 
B. pyrex glass 
C. corning glass 
D. quartz glass 

114. The function of Fe(OH)3 in the contact process is
A. to remove arsenic impurity 
B. to remove moisture 
C. to detect colloidal impurity 
D. to remove dust particles 

115. Lowest percentage of carbon is in
A. cast iron 
B. steel 
C. wrought iron 
D. pig iron 

116. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol–1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the process would be
A. 0.1 J mol–1 K–1 
B. 100 J mol–1 K–1 
C. 1.0 J mol–1 K–1 
D. 10 J mol–1 K–1 

117. The general formula of a cycloalkane is
A. CnH2n + 2 
B. CnH2n 
C. CnH2n - 2 
D. CnHn 

118. Diesel oil is preferred for heavy motor vehicles because of
A. high efficiency and fuel economy 
B. less consumption 
C. less damage to engine 
D. higher industrial production from crude 

119. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is
A. 32 
B. 16 
C. 8 
D. 4 

120. The drug, reserpine is used to
A. cure arthritis 
B. alleviate pain 
C. reduce high blood pressure 
D. reduce high palpitation 

121. Alkanes are also known as
A. All of these 
B. Saturated hydrocarbons 
C. Paraffins 
D. None of these 

122. pH value of which one of the following is NOT equal to one?
A. 0.1 M HNO3 
B. 0.1 M CH3 COOH 
C. 50 cm3 0.4 M HCl + 50 cm3 0.2 M NaOH 
D. 0.05 M H2SO4 

123. Synthetic detergents are
A. sodium salts of fatty acids 
B. a mixture of sodium carbonate and sodium chloride 
C. calcium salts of hydrochloric acid 
D. a mixture of sodium salts of aromatic and aliphatic sulphonic acids 

124. Entropy of the universe is
A. continuously increasing 
B. continuously decreasing 
C. zero 
D. constant 

125. +I effect is shown by
A. -N02 
B. -Br 
C. -CH3 
D. -Cl 

126. Styrene is made up of the elements: hydrogen and
A. oxygen 
B. sulphur 
C. chlorine 
D. carbon 

127. The group of substances industrially prepared by electrolysis is
A. ethyl alcohol, chlorine, caustic soda 
B. caustic soda, chlorine. aluminium 
C. nitrogen, oxygen, aluminium 
D. sugar, common salt, iron 

128. Decomposition of benzene diozonium chloride by using Cu2Cl2/HCl to form chlorobenzene is
A. Kolbe's reaction 
B. Sandmeyer's reaction 
C. Cannizarro's reaction 
D. Raschig's reaction 

129. Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic aci This can be explained using
A. +I effect 
B. - M effect 
C. - I effect 
D. + M effect 

130. The filament of an electric bulb is made of :
A. iron 
B. nichrome 
C. tungsten 
D. graphite 

131. The gas B turns potassium dichromate acidified with dilute H2SO4 to a green coloured solution C. A, B and C are respectively
A. Na2SO3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 
B. Na2S, SO, Cr2 (SO4)3 
C. Na2SO4, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 
D. Na2S2O3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 

132. In the industrial production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is
A. dissociation 
B. reduction 
C. oxidation 
D. ionisation 

133. Gobar gas' contains mainly
A. carbon dioxide 
B. methane 
C. acetylene 
D. ethylene 

134. Cooking is fast in a pressure cooker, because
A. food particles are effectively smashe 
B. water boils at higher temperature inside the pressure cooker 
C. food is cooked at constant volume 
D. loss of heat due to radiation is minimum 

135. The compound which gives turbidity immediately with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
A. butan-1-ol 
B. 2-methyl propan-1-ol 
C. butan-2-ol 
D. 2-methyl propan-2-ol 


136. A concave lens of focal length 20 cm placed in contact with a plane mirror acts as a
A. concave mirror of focal length 10 cm 
B. concave mirror of focal length 60 cm 
C. concave mirror of focal length 40 cm 
D. convex mirror of focal length 10 cm 

137. When an electron positron pair annihilates, the energy released is about
A. 0.8E-13 J 
B. 1.6E-13 
C. 3.2E-13 J 
D. 4.8E-13 J 

138. What is the luminous intensity of a lamp which produces an illuminance of 12 lux at a distance of 5.0 m from it ?
A. 300 cd 
B. 400 cd 
C. 100 cd 
D. 200 cd 

139. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the conservation of
A. Mass 
B. Linear momentum 
C. Angular momentum 
D. Energy 

140. A body of mass 0.4 kg is whirled in a vertical circle making 2 rev/sec. If the radius of-the circle is 1.2 m, then tension in the string when the body is at the top of the circle, is
A. 41.56N 
B. 89.86N 
C. 109.86N 
D. 115.86N 

141. In short wave communication waves of which of the following frequencies will be reflected back by the ionospheric layer having electron density 1011 per m-3?
A. 2 MHz 
B. 10 MHz 
C. 12 MHz 
D. 18 MHz 

142. Two particles of mass M and m are moving in a circle of radii R r. If their time-periods are same, what will be the ratio of their linear velocities?
A. MR:mr 
B. M:m 
C. R:r 
D. 1:1 

143. A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length l and rotated in a circle with a constant speed v. If the string is released, the stone flies
A. Tangential outward 
B. Radically outward 
C. Radially inward 
D. With an acceleration mv2/l 

144. Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries, produces blight white light. As the batteries wear out
A. The light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour 
B. Light colour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in intensity 
C. It stops working suddenly while giving white light 
D. Colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced 

145. A child is swinging a swing. Minimum and maximum heights of swing from earth’s surface are 0.75 m and 2m respectively. The maximum velocity of this swing is?
A. 5 m/s 
B. 10 m/s 
C. 15 m/s 
D. 20 m/s 

146. A monoenergetic electron beam with electron speed of 5.28E6 /ms is subjected to a magnetic field of 2E-4 T normal to the back velocity. What is the radius of the circular path traced by the beam ? Given e/m for electron = 1.16E11 C/ kg
A. 20 cm 
B. 15 cm 
C. 10 cm 
D. 5 cm  

147. lf the density of a given body is 10 gm/cms, what is its specific gravity ?
A. 0.01 
B. 1.0 
C. 1.0 
D. 10.0 

148. The particle accelerated at a constant rate from 23 mi/hr. to 58 mi./hr. in 3.5 sec. Its acceleration was
A. 10 mi./hr. per sec 
B. 58 mi/hr per sec 
C. 23 mi./hr. per sec 
D. less than 10 mi./hr. per sec 

149. A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery because it
A. ls highly monochromatic 
B. ls highly coherent 
C. ls highly directional 
D. Can be sharply focused 

150. Two waves of lengths 50 cm and 51 cm produced 12 beats per second. The velocity of sound is
A. 360 rn/s 
B. 340m/s 
C. 331 m/s 
D. 306 m/s 

151. An astronaut is looking down on earth's surface from a space shuttle at an altitude of 400 km. Assuming that the astronaut's pupil diameter is 5 mm and the wavelength of visible light is 500 nm. The astronaut will be able to resolve linear objects of the size of about
A. 0.5 m 
B. 5 m 
C. 50 m 
D. 500 m 

152. If an electron and a photon propagate in the form of waves having the same wavelength, it implies that they have the same
A. Energy 
B. Momentum 
C. Velocity 
D. Angular momentum 

153. A good floor lamp has a wlde heavy base to increase its stability through
A. increasing contact area 
B. lowering the center of gravity 
C. raising the center of gravity 
D. None of the above 

154. A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a string of length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal circle. The string will break if the tension is more than 25 N. What is the maximum speed with which the ball can be moved?
A. 14m/s 
B. 8 m/s 
C. 5 m/s 
D. 3m/s 

155. A sphere of mass M and radius R is falling in a viscous fluid. The terminal velocity attained by the falling object will be proportional to
A. R x R 
B. R 
C. 1/R 
D. 1/R/R 

156. For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies
A. The total kinetic energy is conserved 
B. The total potential energy is conserved 
C. The linear momentum is not conserved 
D. The linear momentum is conserved 

157. One nanometre is equal to
A. 1E-7 cm 
B. 1E-9 cm 
C. 1E-9 mm 
D. 1E9 mm 

158. The energy of a photon corresponding to the visible light of maximum wavelength is approximately equal to
A. 2.0 eV 
B. 2.5 eV 
C. 1.0 eV 
D. 1.5 eV 

159. A body of mass 0.5 kg is whirled in a vertical circle at an angular frequency of 10 rad/s. lf the radius of the circle is 0.5 m, what is the tension in the string when the body is at the top of the circle ? Take g = l0 m/s2
A. 40N 
B. 30N 
C. 20N 
D. 10N 

160. A man P of mass 80 kg runs up a staircase in 12 seconds. Another man Q of mass 60 kg runs up the same staircase in ll seconds. What is the ratio of the power developed by P to that by Q ?
A. 11/9 
B. 49/33 
C. 12/11 
D. 4/3 

161. The maximum range of a gun of horizontal terrain is 16 km. If g= 10 ms then muzzle velocity of a shell must be ?
A. 160 m/s 
B. 200?2 m/s 
C. 400 m/s 
D. 800 m/s 

162. An electron is travelling along the x-directlon . It encounters a magnetic field in the y-direction . Its subsequent motion will be
A. Straight line along the x-direction 
B. A circle in the xz-plane 
C. A circle in the yz-plane 
D. A circle in the xy-plane 

163. Radium Ra236 has a half-life of 1590 years. How much of the original amount of Ra236 would remain after 6360 years ?
A. 1/8 
B. 1/4 
C. 1/16 
D. 1/2 

164. You are standing 1000 m from the point where a steel block strlkes the sldewalk. How long will lt take the sound to reach your ears if the speed of sound in air at 0° C is about 333 m/sec. ?
A. 3 seconds 
B. 2 seconds 
C. 1 second 
D. 5 seconds 

165. Using mass M, length L, time T and current as fundamental quantities, the dimension of permeability is
A. M-1LT-2 A 
B. ML 2T-2 A-1 
C. ML T-2 A-2 
D. ML T-1 A-1 

166. Carbon dating is best suited for determining the age of fossils if their age in years is of the order of
A. 1000 
B. 10,000 
C. 100,000 
D. 1,000,000 

167. If the radius of the earth shrinks by 1.5% mass remaining same , then the value of acceleration due to gravity changes by
A. 1% 
B. 3% 
C. 4% 
D. 2% 

168. The cyclotron frequency of an electron gyrating in a magnetic field of 1T is approximately
A. 28 MHz 
B. 280 MHz 
C. 2.8 GHz 
D. 28 GHz 

169. Which of the following logic gates is an universal gate ?
A. NAND 
B. AND 
C. OR 
D. NOT 

170. In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident light has a certain minimum
A. Wavelength 
B. Frequency 
C. Amplitude 
D. Angle of incidence 

171. If a body ‘A’ of mass ‘M’ is thrown with velocity ‘V’ at an angle of 30° to the horizontal and another body ‘B’ of the same mass is thrown with the same speed at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, the ratio of horizontal range of A to B will be?
A. 1:3 
B. 1:1 
C. 3:2 
D. 2:3 

172. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100 m apart and velocity is 25 m/sec. The boat bounces up once in every
A. 2500 s 
B. 75 s 
C. 4 s 
D. 0.25 s 

173. The direction of the force exerted on a surface by a liquid at rest is
A. Normal to the surface 
B. Parallel to the surface 
C. tangential to the surface 
D. 30° to the surface 

174. A horizontal platform is rotating with uniform angular velocity around the vertical axis passing through its centre. At some instant of time a viscous fluid of mass m is dropped at the centre and is allowed to spread out and finally fall. The angular velocity during this period
A. increases contmuously 
B. remams unaltered 
C. decreases continuously 
D. decreases initially and increases again 

175. A lens is made of flint glass refractive index = 1.5. When the lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25, the focal length
A. increaes by a factor of 1.25 
B. increases by a factor of 2.5 
C. increases by a factor of 1.2 
D. decreases by a factor of 1.2 

176. The condition that the image is not formed on the screen placed on the other side of lens, when the object is placed before the lens
A. Between 2F and F 
B. Between F and optical centre 
C. Between 2F and infinity 
D. At F 

177. Which of the following is an amorphous solid ?
A. sugar 
B. salt 
C. glass 
D. diamond 

178. Which of the following statements is true ?
A. Total kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collisions but momentum is not conserved in elastic collision 
B. Total kinetic energy is not conserved but momentum is conserved in inelastic collisions 
C. In elastic collisions. the momentum is conserved but not in inelastic collisions 
D. Both kinetic energy and momentum are conserved in elastic as well as inelastic collisions 

179. A proton and an alpha - particle, moving with the same velocity. enter into a uniform magnetic field, acting normal to the plane of their motion. The ratio of the radii of the circular paths described by the proton and alpha - particle is
A. 1:2 
B. 1:4 
C. 1:16 
D. 4:1 

180. A concrete sphere of radius R has a cavity of radius r which is packed with sawdust. The relative densities of concrete and sawdust are 2.4 and 0.3 respectively. For this sphere to float with its entire volume submerged under water, the ratio of the mass of concrete to the mass of sawdust will be
A. zero 
B. 3 
C. 4 
D. 8